Operating System McQs
Q.1 In process scheduling, the term “quantum” refers to:
A. The maximum size of data a process can handle
B. The time a process spends in the CPU before being preempted
C. The priority level of a process
D. The number of processes in the system
Q.2 How does the Real-Time Operating System (RTOS) scheduling differ from general-purpose operating system scheduling?
A. RTOS prioritizes tasks based on their urgency and deadlines
B. RTOS uses only the First-Come, First-Served algorithm
C. RTOS does not allow task preemption
D. RTOS schedules tasks alphabetically
Q.3 What is a major advantage of using the Multilevel Queue scheduling algorithm?
A. It allows processes to move between queues
B. It reduces the overall system security
C. It simplifies the scheduler design
D. It increases the CPU utilization
Q.4 Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm?
A. It can cause starvation of longer processes
B. It is too fast
C. It requires too much memory
D. It is not suitable for batch processing
Q.5 In the context of process scheduling, what does “context switch” mean?
A. Changing the process state from running to waiting
B. Switching the CPU from one process to another
C. Updating the process priority
D. None of the above
Q.6 The Round-Robin scheduling algorithm is designed to:
A. Prevent process starvation
B. Prioritize short jobs
C. Minimize resource allocation
D. Maximize system security
Q.7 Which scheduling algorithm assigns CPU time based on process priority?
A. First-Come, First-Served
B. Shortest Job First
C. Priority Scheduling
D. Round-Robin
Q.8 What is the purpose of process scheduling in an operating system?
A. To allocate CPU time to processes
B. To allocate memory to processes
C. To manage the file system
D. To monitor system performance
Q.9 To identify a process consuming an unusually high amount of system resources, you would use:
A. The ps command
B. The top command
C. The kill command
D. The cd command
Q.10 When a process is not responding to user inputs, a likely cause is:
A. The process is in a deadlock state
B. The process is executing a high-priority task
C. The user input device is malfunctioning
D. The process is waiting for a network response
Q.11 A thread is unable to proceed with its execution because it’s waiting for a resource that’s held by another thread. This scenario describes:
A. A deadlock
B. A segmentation fault
C. A syntax error
D. A runtime error
Q.12 If a program with multiple threads is using more CPU resources than expected, you should first:
A. Check for infinite loops within threads
B. Increase the number of CPUs in the system
C. Delete unused threads
D. None of the above
Q.13 In most modern operating systems, a new thread is created by:
A. Forking a process
B. Using a thread library function like pthread_create in C
C. Cloning the operating system
D. Writing a new kernel module
Q.14 The main purpose of thread synchronization is to:
A. Ensure that only one thread can access the resource at any given time
B. Make sure that threads run at the same speed
C. Prevent threads from executing
D. None of the above
Q.15 In operating systems, a semaphore is:
A. A type of malware
B. A signal mechanism
C. A low-level programming language
D. An I/O device driver
Q.16 Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a deadlock?
A. Two or more processes are waiting indefinitely for an event that can only be caused by one of the waiting processes
B. A process waiting for a resource that’s never released
C. A thread that is executing a non-terminating loop
D. All of the above
Q.17 Context switching is:
A. The process of saving and restoring the state of a CPU so that multiple processes can share a single CPU resource
B. The act of switching between different applications by the user
C. A method of disk scheduling
D. None of the above
Q.18 In a multiprocessing system, processes:
A. Are executed one at a time
B. Can share resources efficiently
C. Are executed in parallel
D. Must communicate using inter-process communication (IPC)
Q.19 The primary difference between a process and a thread is:
A. A thread is a part of a process
B. A process is less resource-intensive
C. Threads do not share resources
D. All of the above
Q.20 Which of the following is true about threads within the same process?
A. They share the same CPU but have different memory
B. They have separate CPUs
C. They share the same memory space
D. None of the above
Q.21 A process is:
A. An instance of a program in execution
B. A set of instructions stored on disk
C. The same as a thread
D. A type of computer virus
Q.22 A computer is running very slowly. The most likely cause is:
A. Too many browser tabs open
B. Insufficient RAM
C. Outdated graphics drivers
D. A disconnected printer
Q.23 A user complains that they cannot access the internet on their computer. What should be checked first?
A. The web browser’s homepage setting
B. The network cable connection
C. The installed operating system
D. The computer’s power status
Q.24 Which command in Unix is used to display the current directory’s contents?
A. ls
B. cd
C. mkdir
D. touch
Q.25 Multitasking in operating systems allows for:
A. Multiple users to share a single device
B. A single user to perform multiple tasks at one time
C. Devices to run without an OS
D. None of the above
Q.26 In an operating system, what is the role of a scheduler?
A. To allocate disk space
B. To manage user accounts
C. To determine which process runs at a certain point in time
D. To configure network settings
Q.27 Which of the following is not a type of operating system?
A. Batch Operating System
B. Real-time Operating System
C. Sequential Operating System
D. Distributed Operating System
Q.28 The kernel of an operating system is:
A. The user interface
B. The part that manages hardware interactions
C. An application software
D. A type of virus
Q.29 An operating system’s primary function includes which of the following?
A. Providing user interface
B. Managing hardware resources
C. Running applications
D. All of the above
Q.30 Which component of an operating system is responsible for managing files?
A. File System Manager
B. Memory Manager
C. Process Manager
D. Device Driver
Q.31 Which function in C is used to allocate memory dynamically?
A. malloc()
B. free()
C. sizeof()
D. realloc()
Q.32 An operating system uses a Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) to:
A. Speed up memory access by storing recent translations of virtual memory to physical memory addresses
B. Decrease the CPU’s workload
C. Manage disk storage
D. None of the above
Q.33 What distinguishes demand paging from pre-paging?
A. Demand paging only loads pages when they are needed, whereas pre-paging loads pages that are likely to be needed soon
B. Demand paging uses disk space, whereas pre-paging uses RAM exclusively
C. Demand paging is faster
D. None of the above
Q.34 Page replacement algorithms are used for:
A. Assigning processes to the CPU
B. Deciding which pages to move to swap space when memory is full
C. Organizing files on disk
D. Managing peripheral devices
Q.35 The principle of locality in memory management refers to:
A. The allocation of memory to processes based on their size
B. The tendency of a processor to access the same set of memory locations repetitively over a short period of time
C. The distribution of files in contiguous memory blocks
D. None of the above
Q.36 What is thrashing in the context of memory management?
A. A technique to clean memory
B. A state where high paging activity is causing a slowdown
C. A method to increase memory access speed
D. A type of memory leak
Q.37 Virtual memory is:
A. Physical memory exclusively used by the operating system
B. A section of the hard disk used as RAM
C. An illusion of unlimited memory created by the OS
D. A type of volatile memory
Q.38 In operating systems, what is segmentation?
A. A technique to ensure data security
B. A memory management scheme that supports user view of memory
C. A method to enhance CPU performance
D. A type of external fragmentation
Q.39 Which memory allocation method involves dividing memory into fixed-sized partitions?
A. Dynamic allocation
B. Segmentation
C. Paging
D. Fixed partitioning
Q.40 What is the purpose of a Memory Management Unit (MMU) in a computer system?
A. To enhance the CPU speed
B. To manage disk storage
C. To translate virtual addresses to physical addresses
D. To monitor system performance
Q.41 In a system experiencing deadlocks, identifying the cause could involve:
A. Checking for unbounded priority inversions
B. Analyzing the order of resource requests
C. Increasing the number of available resources
D. All of the above
Q.42 To prevent deadlocks, a common strategy is to:
A. Avoid locking mechanisms
B. Use a single thread for all operations
C. Ensure that locks are acquired in a consistent order
D. Increase the priority of all threads
Q.43 If a thread fails to release a lock, the immediate consequence is likely to be:
A. An increase in CPU usage
B. A deadlock or resource starvation for other threads
C. Faster program execution
D. None of the above
Q.44 A program frequently encounters a deadlock. A likely first step to debug is:
A. Eliminate all mutexes
B. Rewrite the program without threads
C. Identify and analyze the resources each thread is trying to access
D. Increase the number of threads
Q.45 Which of the following is true about condition variables in thread synchronization?
A. They allow threads to wait for certain conditions to be met
B. They automatically release mutexes when a thread waits
C. They prevent deadlocks
D. All of the above
Q.46 In POSIX threads (pthreads), which function is used to initialize a mutex?
A. pthread_mutex_init
B. pthread_create
C. pthread_mutex_lock
D. pthread_join
Q.47 A critical section is:
A. A section of code that can be executed by multiple threads simultaneously
B. A section of code that requires mutual exclusion in access
C. A section of memory allocated to the OS
D. None of the above
Q.48 The Banker’s algorithm is used for:
A. Detecting deadlocks
B. Preventing deadlocks
C. Memory allocation
D. Process scheduling
Q.49 Priority inversion can be resolved using:
A. Priority inheritance
B. Increasing the system’s priority
C. Decreasing the priority of lower-priority processes
D. All of the above
Q.50 Semaphore is a synchronization tool used to:
A. Signal between processes that a resource is free
B. Protect a shared resource from concurrent access
C. Count the number of process executions
D. All of the above
Q.51 In the Dining Philosophers Problem, deadlock can be avoided by:
A. Allowing only four philosophers to sit at the table at any time
B. Requiring philosophers to pick up both forks at the same time
C. Philosophers must request the waiter’s permission to pick up forks
D. All of the above
Q.52 What does the term “mutual exclusion” mean in the context of synchronization?
A. Only one process can access a resource at a time
B. Any number of processes can share a resource
C. Resources can be accessed in any order
D. None of the above
Q.53 Which of the following conditions must be present for a deadlock to occur?
A. Mutual exclusion, Hold and Wait, No preemption, Circular wait
B. Mutual exclusion, First Come First Served, Circular wait
C. Priority inversion, Hold and Wait, No preemption
D. All of the above
Q.54 A deadlock occurs when:
A. A process is waiting for a resource that is never released
B. Multiple processes are waiting for each other to release resources
C. A thread tries to access a locked resource
D. All of the above
Q.55 What is the primary purpose of synchronization in a multi-threaded environment?
A. To ensure that only one thread can access a resource at a time
B. To increase the execution speed of programs
C. To allocate memory efficiently
D. To prevent the system from crashing
Q.56 A real-time system is missing deadlines after a new task was introduced. The first step to troubleshoot is to:
A. Increase the system clock speed
B. Check the task’s priority and execution time
C. Reduce the number of tasks
D. Update the RTOS
Q.57 In diagnosing system performance issues, if certain low-priority processes consume excessive CPU time, you should:
A. Increase their priority
B. Decrease their priority
C. Reassign them to a different user
D. Allocate them more memory
Q.58 If a system frequently experiences slow down during multitasking, a possible solution could be to adjust:
A. The system’s page file size
B. The scheduling algorithm parameters
C. The graphical user interface settings
D. The network bandwidth limits
Q.59 A newly installed application is causing the system to slow down due to high CPU usage. Initially, you should:
A. Uninstall the application
B. Increase the system’s RAM
C. Check the application’s process priority
D. Update the system’s CPU drivers
Q.60 Which command on a Linux system will show the current process priority (niceness) values?
A. ps
B. top
C. nice
D. renice
Q.61 If a newly connected printer is not working, the first step should be to:
A. Check if the printer is turned on
B. Reinstall the operating system
C. Change the printer’s USB cable
D. Update the BIOS
Q.62 To change the permissions of a device file in Linux, which command is used?
A. chmod
B. chown
C. lsmod
D. modprobe
Q.63 In Linux, the command to list all currently connected USB devices is:
A. lsusb
B. usblist
C. showusb
D. listusb
Q.64 The term “plug and play” in the context of I/O devices refers to:
A. Devices that can operate in multiple modes
B. Devices that require special adapters to function
C. Devices that can be added or removed without system reboot or needing manual configuration
D. Devices that come with built-in software
Q.65 Polling and interrupts are methods used to:
A. Detect errors in software programs
B. Facilitate communication between a CPU and peripheral devices
C. Manage file transfers
D. Control access to the internet
Q.66 What role does a device driver play in a computer system?
A. It increases the speed of the device
B. It acts as an intermediary between the operating system and a hardware device
C. It stores data for the device
D. It powers the device
Q.67 An interrupt in a computer system is:
A. A signal to the operating system that a program has crashed
B. A signal indicating the completion of an I/O operation
C. A request for CPU processing time
D. None of the above
Q.68 DMA is used in I/O operations to:
A. Decrease CPU usage
B. Directly access the memory without CPU intervention
C. Increase memory usage
D. Enhance network connectivity
Q.69 Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. Monitor
B. Hard drive
C. Keyboard
D. Speaker
Q.70 What is the primary purpose of an I/O system in a computer?
A. To increase the processing power of the CPU
B. To manage the computer’s memory
C. To facilitate communication between the computer and external devices
D. To store data permanently
Q.71 If a database application crashes frequently and corrupts files on a networked storage, an investigation should consider:
A. The network stability
B. The database application’s disk I/O operations
C. The file system compatibility with the database
D. All of the above
Q.72 When a file system is consistently becoming corrupted on a hard drive, a likely action to take is:
A. Replacing the hard drive
B. Changing the file system type
C. Installing more memory
D. Updating the network drivers
Q.73 To resolve an issue with a file system reporting incorrect free space, you might:
A. Reboot the computer
B. Run a file system check and repair utility
C. Defragment the disk
D. Increase the RAM
Q.74 A user reports that they cannot write data to a USB drive even though it appears to have free space. A possible cause is:
A. The file system’s maximum file size limit is exceeded
B. The drive is formatted with a read-only file system
C. The USB drive is physically damaged
D. The file names are too long
Q.75 In Unix-like systems, how can you create a symbolic link to a file?
A. Using the ln -s source destination command
B. Using the cp source destination command
C. Using the mklink source destination command
D. Using the link source destination command
Q.76 Which command in Linux is used to display the file system disk space usage?
A. df
B. du
C. ls
D. mount
Q.77 The process of converting a file system to a different type without losing data is known as:
A. Formatting
B. Partitioning
C. Mounting
D. Conversion
Q.78 What is the difference between a hard link and a symbolic link in a file system?
A. A hard link cannot cross file systems, whereas a symbolic link can
B. A symbolic link requires more disk space than a hard link
C. Only hard links can point to directories
D. All of the above
Q.79 RAID technology is used to:
A. Increase internet speed
B. Enhance CPU performance
C. Improve data storage reliability and performance
D. Only store backup data
Q.80 How does a journaling file system enhance data integrity?
A. By encrypting file data
B. By duplicating file entries
C. By keeping a log of changes to files before committing them to the main file system
D. By compressing files
Q.81 Which file system feature improves system performance by storing file fragments contiguously?
A. Fragmentation
B. Indexing
C. Journaling
D. Defragmentation
Q.82 What does the term “inode” refer to in Unix-like file systems?
A. A network node that stores data
B. A directory entry that contains a file name
C. The data structure that stores information about a file
D. A protocol for file transfer
Q.83 In a file system, what is the purpose of a directory?
A. To speed up the CPU
B. To store system configuration files only
C. To organize files into a hierarchy
D. To act as a temporary storage area
Q.84 Which of the following is an attribute of a file?
A. Color
B. Size
C. Shape
D. Texture
Q.85 What is the primary function of a file system?
A. To provide security to the system
B. To manage the CPU’s resources
C. To organize and manage files on storage media
D. To enhance network performance
Q.86 Analyzing and solving a problem where certain processes are unable to allocate memory might involve looking at:
A. The size of the swap space
B. Memory allocation algorithms
C. Application memory usage patterns
D. System cache settings
Q.87 When a system runs out of physical memory and heavily relies on swapping, you should consider:
A. Adding more physical memory
B. Closing unused applications
C. Upgrading the CPU
D. Installing faster storage
Q.88 To diagnose a memory leak in an application, you would use:
A. A profiler
B. A debugger
C. A memory analysis tool
D. All of the above
Q.89 If an application is crashing due to a segmentation fault, a possible cause could be:
A. The CPU is overheating
B. It is trying to access memory that it hasn’t been allocated
C. There’s insufficient disk space
D. The network connection is down
Q.90 In a paging system, which data structure is typically used to map virtual addresses to physical addresses?
A. Array
B. Hash table
C. Stack
D. Queue
Q.91 What does the CAP theorem address?
A. CPU usage and performance
B. Network setup and latency
C. Trade-offs between consistency, availability, and partition tolerance
D. Data encryption standards
Q.92 How are consistency models important in distributed systems?
A. They dictate the system’s power consumption
B. They outline data storage and retrieval rules
C. They control the user interface design
D. They manage network traffic
Q.93 What is a key feature of distributed systems?
A. Centralized management
B. Scalability and concurrency
C. Single-point failure
D. Manual synchronization
Q.94 What approach can be taken to secure a system after detecting unauthorized access through a network service?
A. Disabling the network service and applying necessary patches or updates
B. Increasing the bandwidth of the network
C. Changing the network service’s port number
D. Using stronger network cables
Q.95 To mitigate an identified SQL injection vulnerability in a web application, you should:
A. Remove all forms from the application
B. Use simple quotes to enclose all SQL strings
C. Validate and sanitize all user inputs
D. Increase the database’s storage capacity
Q.96 When debugging a web application for security flaws, what tool can help identify vulnerabilities like SQL injection?
A. A web framework debugger
B. A static code analyzer
C. A packet sniffer
D. A browser’s developer console
Q.97 Which HTTPS status code indicates that the requested resource is available only through a proxy and the proxy must be provided?
A. 305 Use Proxy
B. 404 Not Found
C. 502 Bad Gateway
D. 403 Forbidden
Q.98 To securely hash passwords in a Python application, which module provides robust methods for this purpose?
A. hashlib
B. crypt
C. ssl
D. os
Q.99 Which mechanism is primarily used in intrusion detection systems (IDS) to identify potential security breaches?
A. Signature-based detection
B. Machine learning algorithms
C. Password strength meters
D. Firewall rules
Q.100 In cybersecurity, what is social engineering?
A. The process of building secure networks
B. The technical method of breaking encryption codes
C. The use of deception to manipulate individuals into divulging confidential or personal information
D. The study of computing in society
Q.101 What is a zero-day exploit?
A. A vulnerability that has been known for less than 24 hours
B. A vulnerability that affects zero devices
C. An exploit that takes advantage of a previously unknown vulnerability in software
D. A bug that can be fixed in zero days
Q.102 What distinguishes a ransomware attack from other forms of malware?
A. It spreads across networks autonomously
B. It encrypts files on the victim’s system and demands payment for decryption keys
C. It is undetectable by antivirus software
D. It can operate without an internet connection
Q.103 What is the principle of least privilege?
A. Granting users the maximum permissions available
B. Granting users only the permissions they need to perform their tasks
C. A method of password protection
D. A firewall configuration technique
Q.104 What is a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
A. An attack that prevents users from accessing a particular website by overwhelming it with traffic
B. A virus that deletes files from the infected computer
C. A phishing attempt to steal personal information
D. An exploit in software code
Q.105 In the context of security, what is encryption?
A. The process of converting plaintext into a secure format to prevent unauthorized access
B. The process of removing viruses from a computer
C. The act of physically securing computing devices
D. The practice of safe web browsing
Q.106 Which of the following best describes a firewall?
A. A physical device that cools down the server
B. A software tool to manage data storage
C. A security system that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules
D. A protocol for secure file transfer
Q.107 When deploying a new service in a containerized environment fails, a potential cause could be:
A. Incompatible container image versions
B. Incorrect user privileges set on the host machine
C. Both options are potential causes
D. The container’s color scheme
Q.108 A cloud application is experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. To diagnose, you should check:
A. The application’s codebase for errors
B. The cloud service provider’s status page for outages
C. The color settings of the application
D. The font size used in the application
Q.109 If a virtual machine (VM) is not starting, the first thing to check should be:
A. The VM’s physical hardware compatibility
B. The network connection speed
C. The configuration settings of the VM
D. The color depth of the VM’s monitor
Q.110 To automate the deployment of applications in a scalable and secure manner, you would use:
A. Kubernetes
B. Docker
C. VirtualBox
D. VMware
Q.111 Which AWS service is a managed NoSQL database?
A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon S3
C. Amazon EC2
D. Amazon DynamoDB
Q.112 Serverless computing allows developers to:
A. Buy servers directly from cloud providers
B. Focus on server maintenance and management
C. Build and run applications without thinking about servers
D. Manually scale cloud resources
Q.113 What distinguishes private cloud from public cloud computing?
A. Private cloud is accessible by any user over the internet
B. Public cloud is hosted on-premises
C. Private cloud services are dedicated to a single organization
D. Public cloud is always less secure
Q.114 What advantage does Platform as a Service (PaaS) provide to developers?
A. Manual management of underlying hardware
B. Limited programming language support
C. Preconfigured development environments
D. Requires extensive system administration skills
Q.115 In virtualization, what does a hypervisor do?
A. Acts as a physical server for virtual machines
B. Manages network traffic exclusively
C. Enables direct communication between virtual machines
D. Manages and creates virtual machines
Q.116 Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing?
A. Limited scalability
B. Pay-per-use pricing model
C. Dependency on local infrastructure
D. Reduced access to computing resources
Q.117 Cloud computing primarily enables users to:
A. Store data locally on physical drives
B. Access computing resources over the internet
C. Use software without internet access
D. Increase data processing time
Q.118 What is the primary purpose of virtualization in computing?
A. To increase physical hardware costs
B. To reduce the number of physical servers required
C. To slow down computing processes
D. To complicate IT management
Q.119 Solving intermittent device disconnection issues might require examining:
A. The device’s firmware version
B. The power management settings for the USB ports
C. The length and quality of the connection cables
D. All of the above
Q.120 When a USB device is not recognized by the system, a useful troubleshooting step is to:
A. Update the device drivers
B. Check the device on another computer
C. Try a different USB port
D. Restart the computer
Q.121 When a Windows system experiences a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), which tool can provide in-depth diagnostic information?
A. Event Viewer
B. Disk Cleanup
C. Task Manager
D. Windows Memory Diagnostic
Q.122 To troubleshoot an application failing to launch on Android, you should first:
A. Check for system updates
B. Review the application’s log files using Logcat
C. Restart the device
D. Uninstall and reinstall the app
Q.123 Which tool is commonly used for debugging kernel issues in Linux?
A. gdb
B. strace
C. ltrace
D. kdump
Q.124 What distinguishes the Linux kernel’s approach to handling device drivers compared to Windows?
A. Linux includes most device drivers within the kernel space, whereas Windows loads them as separate processes in user space.
B. Linux drivers are all open source, whereas Windows drivers are not.
C. Linux does not support as many drivers as Windows.
D. Windows uses a monolithic kernel for drivers.
Q.125 How does Android’s security model primarily protect user data?
A. By enforcing permissions at the application level
B. By using antivirus software
C. By encrypting the entire operating system
D. By requiring dual authentication for all applications
Q.126 In Windows operating systems, what is the purpose of the Registry?
A. To store user preferences and system settings
B. To manage installed fonts
C. To track system performance
D. To encrypt user data
Q.127 What is the primary file system used by Linux distributions?
A. FAT32
B. NTFS
C. ext4
D. HFS+
Q.128 What technique is effective for identifying memory leaks in an operating system?
A. Rebooting the system frequently
B. Using memory profiling and monitoring tools
C. Increasing virtual memory size
D. Changing the system’s theme
Q.129 When diagnosing an operating system that frequently crashes, what should be investigated first?
A. The power supply unit
B. Recently installed software or drivers
C. The screen saver settings
D. The desktop background image
Q.130 In the context of operating system development, which language feature is crucial for implementing process isolation?
A. Object-oriented programming
B. Garbage collection
C. Memory management features like segmentation and paging
D. Functional programming paradigms
Q.131 In the context of operating systems, what does “virtualization” enable?
A. Running multiple operating systems on the same hardware simultaneously
B. Reducing the amount of RAM needed
C. Encrypting all data stored on the disk
D. Automatically debugging software
Q.132 What is the primary advantage of using a layered operating system architecture?
A. Faster performance
B. Simpler user interfaces
C. Increased security due to separation of layers
D. Easier to debug applications
Q.133 How does a microkernel architecture differ from a monolithic kernel?
A. A microkernel provides fewer services at the kernel level, running most services in user space, unlike a monolithic kernel.
B. A microkernel is larger.
C. Monolithic kernels are used only in embedded systems.
D. Microkernels do not support multitasking.
Q.134 In operating system architecture, what is the main function of the scheduler?
A. To allocate disk space
B. To manage user permissions
C. To determine which processes run at any given time
D. To encrypt data
Q.135 Which component of an operating system is responsible for process management?
A. The kernel
B. The shell
C. The application interface
D. The file system
Q.136 When a real-time system experiences unpredictable behavior, what might be a contributing factor?
A. Inconsistent user input
B. Fluctuating power levels
C. Non-deterministic task scheduling
D. Outdated user manuals
Q.137 To troubleshoot missed deadlines in a real-time application, examine:
A. User interface responsiveness
B. Database indexing methods
C. Task execution order and timing constraints
D. Audio output quality
Q.138 A real-time system’s response time has degraded. What’s the first thing to check?
A. The system’s power supply
B. The real-time scheduling algorithm and task priorities
C. The external network speed
D. The cooling system
Q.139 For real-time systems in C, which library provides functions for precise time management?
A. stdlib.h
B. math.h
C. time.h
D. pthread.h
Q.140 How does jitter affect a real-time system?
A. It increases the system’s throughput
B. It causes variations in response times, potentially violating timing constraints
C. It simplifies system design
D. It reduces the need for error handling
Q.141 What role does predictability play in real-time systems?
A. It ensures the system is economically viable
B. It guarantees that system responses occur at random intervals
C. It ensures the system behaves in a well-defined manner over time
D. It increases system design complexity
Q.142 In real-time systems, what is deadline monotonic scheduling?
A. A scheduling algorithm based on task priorities that never change
B. A dynamic priority scheduling where task priority increases as the deadline approaches
C. Scheduling based solely on task arrival times
D. A scheduling method where tasks with longer durations have higher priority
Q.143 Which type of real-time system guarantees that critical task deadlines are met?
A. Soft real-time system
B. Firm real-time system
C. Hard real-time system
D. Non-real-time system
Q.144 What distinguishes a real-time system from a general-purpose system?
A. Higher processing power in real-time systems
B. Real-time systems respond to input within a fixed time
C. Real-time systems are easier to design
D. General-purpose systems cannot handle concurrent tasks
Q.145 To resolve data inconsistency in a distributed database, check:
A. Database schema per node
B. Consistency model and replication strategy
C. Database interface design
D. Server hardware specs
Q.146 If a node often loses communication, investigate:
A. UI design
B. Network configuration and connectivity
C. Application color scheme
D. Hardware branding
Q.147 Initial step to diagnose latency in distributed systems?
A. Increase network bandwidth
B. Check error logs for timing information
C. Replace network cables
D. User feedback surveys
Q.148 What algorithm is vital for a distributed hash table’s efficiency?
A. Round-robin
B. Consistent hashing
C. Binary search
D. Quick sort
Q.149 What is eventual consistency?
A. Immediate data consistency across nodes
B. Data never synchronizes across nodes
C. Data consistency over time if no new updates occur
D. Updates are lost during failures
Q.150 Which technology is crucial for fault tolerance in distributed systems?
A. Load balancers
B. Message Queuing Services
C. VPNs
D. Firewalls
