Computer Network MCQs
Q.1 Which Ethernet standard provides a speed of 1 Gbps?
A. 10BaseT
B. 100BaseTX
C. 1000BaseT
D. 10GBaseT
Q.2 In Ethernet networks, what is the purpose of the collision detection mechanism?
A. To encrypt data
B. To compress data
C. To detect and manage when two devices try to send data simultaneously
D. To prioritize data
Q.3 What is the standard Ethernet frame size for most networks?
A. 64 bytes to 1518 bytes
B. 128 bytes to 1024 bytes
C. 1500 bytes to 2000 bytes
D. 100 bytes to 1500 bytes
Q.4 What is the primary function of the MAC (Media Access Control) sublayer?
A. Frame delimiting
B. Error detection
C. Controlling access to the physical medium
D. Physical addressing
Q.5 A web application can send data but cannot receive.
What layer could be malfunctioning?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Presentation
Q.6 If a computer can connect to local devices but not to the Internet, what might be misconfigured?
A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. Default gateway
D. MAC address
Q.7 A device is unable to connect to any network. Which OSI layer should be investigated first?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Physical
Q.8 Which command is used to test connectivity to a specific IP address and trace the path the packets take?
A. ping
B. arp
C. tracert
D. nslookup
Q.9 What does the netstat command do?
A. Displays network connections, routing tables, and statistics
B. Configures network interfaces
C. Tests connectivity to a host
D. Manages firewall settings
Q.10 Which command can be used to display the current TCP/IP network configuration?
A. ipconfig /all
B. netstat -r
C. arp -a
D. tracert
Q.11 What feature distinguishes TCP from UDP at the Transport Layer?
A. TCP is faster than UDP
B. TCP and UDP use different port numbers
C. TCP is connection-oriented while UDP is not
D. TCP uses IP but UDP does not
Q.12 How does the Presentation Layer of the OSI model differ from the Application Layer?
A. It is responsible for session management
B. It deals with syntax and semantics of the information exchanged
C. It provides encryption and compression
D. It is not implemented in the TCP/IP model
Q.13 Which protocol operates at the Transport Layer of the OSI model to ensure reliable communication?
A. ICMP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Q.14 What does the TCP/IP model’s Internet layer do?
A. Manages end-to-end data communication sessions
B. Routes packets across networks
C. Formats data packets
D. Encodes and decodes data
Q.15 Which OSI layer is responsible for error detection and correction at the destination?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Physical
Q.16 The process of encapsulation involves data moving from which layer to which layer?
A. Application to Physical
B. Physical to Application
C. Transport to Network
D. Network to Transport
Q.17 In the TCP/IP model, which layer corresponds to the OSI model’s Physical and Data Link layers?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Internet
D. Network Interface
Q.18 What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
A. To provide data routing paths for network communication
B. To format data
C. To establish connections
D. To encode and decode data
Q.19Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications?
A. Session Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Presentation Layer
Q.20 A computer can ping IP addresses but not domain names.
What is likely the issue?
A. IP conflict
B. Router failure
C. DNS misconfiguration
D. Faulty Ethernet cable
Q.21 If a computer is unable to access the Internet, but can communicate with local network devices, what should be checked first?
A. Router configuration
B. Cable connections
C. Local firewall settings
D. DNS settings
Q.22 What is the result of executing the ping localhost command?
A. It sends ICMP echo requests to the local machine
B. It configures the local machine’s IP address
C. It displays the routing table
D. It clears the DNS cache
Q.23 Which command can be used to view the current IP configuration of a device?
A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. Both ipconfig and ifconfig
D. netstat
Q.24 In a computer network, what is the main function of the application layer?
A. To provide network services to the applications
B. To transmit data between network devices
C. To package data for transfer
D. To route data between networks
Q.25 Which layer of the OSI model ensures the error-free transmission of data?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Transport Layer
Q.26 What protocol is commonly used for transmitting web pages over the internet?
A. SMTP
B. FTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Q.27 Which device is used to connect different network segments in a computer network?
A. Repeater
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Modem
Q.28 What type of network covers a large geographical area, like a city, country, or the world?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. PAN
Q.29 Which topology does the Internet resemble?
A. Ring
B. Bus
C. Star
D. Mesh
Q.30 What is the fundamental purpose of a computer network?
A. Sharing resources
B. Storing data
C. Performing calculations
D. Enhancing security
Q.31 In BGP (Border Gateway Protocol), what is the main factor in selecting the best path?
A. Path length
B. Bandwidth
C. Lowest cost
D. Number of AS hops
Q.32 What differentiates dynamic routing from static routing?
A. Dynamic routing is less secure
B. Static routing automatically updates
C. Dynamic routing automatically updates routes
D. Static routing is faster
Q.33 Which type of routing algorithm does OSPF use?
A. Distance-vector
B. Link-state
C. Path-vector
D. Hybrid
Q.34 What is the primary purpose of routing protocols in a network?
A. To encrypt data
B. To compress data
C. To determine optimal data paths
D. To manage user permissions
Q.35 How to resolve intermittent connectivity issues with an IPv6 network?
A. Replacing the router
B. Updating network drivers and firmware
C. Checking for IPv6 prefix delegation issues
D. All of the above
Q.36 You’re unable to ping an IPv6 address from your machine.
What could be the issue?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Firewall blocking ICMPv6 packets
C. Incorrect gateway
D. All of the above
Q.37 A computer can access IPv4 websites but not IPv6 websites.
What should be checked first?
A. IPv6 configuration on the computer
B. Router’s IPv6 support
C. IPv6 DNS settings
D. Firewall settings for IPv6
Q.38 What command provides detailed information about routes to an IPv6 address and discovers MTU along the path?
A. mtr
B. tracepath6
C. ip -6 route
D. netstat -r6
Q.39 Which command can you use to test IPv6 connectivity to an address?
A. ping6
B. tracert6
C. arp -6
D. ifconfig -6
Q.40 How can you display the current IP configuration on a Unix/Linux system?
A. ipconfig
B. ifconfig
C. netstat -i
D. arp -a
Q.41 What mechanism does IPv6 use to ensure data integrity and authentication?
A. ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
B. AH (Authentication Header)
C. ICMPv6
D. RARP
Q.42 In IPv6, what is the equivalent of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) used in IPv4?
A. DHCPv6
B. ICMPv6
C. Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)
D. IGMPv6
Q.43 What is the function of an IP subnet mask?
A. To separate the network address from the host address
B. To encrypt IP addresses
C. To detect IP conflicts
D. To assign IP addresses automatically
Q.44 Which feature of IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT (Network Address Translation)?
A. Auto-configuration
B. Built-in encryption
C. The vast address space
D. Multicast
Q.45 What is the main difference between IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Address size
B. Error detection mechanisms
C. Encryption capabilities
D. Transport layer integration
Q.46 How do routers utilize ICMP messages within the IP framework?
A. To encrypt data packets
B. To prioritize packets
C. To diagnose routing issues
D. To compress data packets
Q.47 Which IP protocol version uses 128-bit addresses?
A. IPv4
B. IPv6
C. ARP
D. RARP
Q.48 What type of messages are used by ICMP to inform senders of network issues?
A. Query messages
B. Error-reporting messages
C. Routing-update messages
D. Service-quality messages
Q.49 What is the primary purpose of the Internet Protocol (IP)?
A. To provide error checking and correction
B. To ensure reliable data delivery
C. To route packets across networks
D. To format data packets
Q.50 What could be a reason for slow data transfer rates over an Ethernet network?
A. Faulty NIC
B. Cable length exceeds standards
C. Incorrect duplex settings
D. All of the above
Q.51 A computer can access local network devices but not the internet.
What should be checked on the switch?
A. VLAN configurations
B. Port speed settings
C. Power settings
D. Firmware updates
Q.52 If a device is not receiving an IP address via DHCP over Ethernet, what layer should be investigated?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Data Link
Q.53 How can you change the MAC address of a network interface on Linux?
A. Modifying the network configuration file
B. Using the ifconfig command
C. Using the macchanger tool
D. All of the above
Q.54 On a Linux system, which command shows the MAC address of all network interfaces?
A. ip addr
B. ifconfig -a
C. route
D. netstat -i
Q.55 Which command can be used to display the MAC address of a network interface on a Windows machine?
A. ipconfig /all
B. ifconfig
C. arp -a
D. netstat -e
Q,56 Which feature distinguishes managed switches from unmanaged switches in an Ethernet network?
A. The ability to encrypt data
B. The ability to be configured and monitored
C. The use of optical fibers
D. The support for multiple protocols
Q.57 What mechanism do Ethernet switches use to avoid collisions?
A. Collision detection
B. Collision prevention
C. Collision avoidance
D. Collision management
Q.58 How does a switch determine the destination of an Ethernet frame?
A. By using the source IP address
B. By using the destination MAC address
C. By using the source MAC address
D. By broadcasting to all ports except the source
Q.59 What does the term “full-duplex” mean in the context of Ethernet networking?
A. Data can be transmitted in one direction only
B. Data can be transmitted in both directions, but not simultaneously
C. Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously
D. None of the above
Q.60 What type of cable is used for most modern Ethernet networks?
A. Coaxial cable
B. Fiber optic cable
C. Twisted pair cable
D. None of the above
Q.61 In HTTP, what status code indicates that the requested resource has been permanently moved to a new URL?
A. 200 OK
B. 301 Moved Permanently
C. 404 Not Found
D. 500 Internal Server Error
Q.62 Which of the following HTTP methods is idempotent and used for updating resources on a server?
A. GET
B. POST
C. PUT
D. DELETE
Q.63 FTP uses which mode for establishing data connections by default?
A. Active mode
B. Passive mode
C. Secure mode
D. Anonymous mode
Q.64 What is the primary function of HTTP in the web architecture?
A. To encrypt data
B. To compress data
C. To transfer hypertext documents
D. To stream video content
Q.65 How can you troubleshoot intermittent TCP connection timeouts?
A. Checking for faulty network hardware
B. Increasing the TCP timeout settings
C. Verifying network path stability
D. All of the above
Q.66 A UDP-based application is experiencing packet loss.
What should be investigated first?
A. Application error handling
B. Network congestion
C. Incorrect port numbers
D. Firewall settings
Q.67 If a client is experiencing delayed TCP connections, what could be a potential cause?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Slow DNS resolution
C. Incorrect routing
D. Firewall settings
Q.68 How can you set a specific TCP window size when using the iperf command for testing?
A. iperf -w [size]
B. iperf -s
C. iperf -c [hostname]
D. iperf -l [length]
Q.69 In Linux, how can you view the UDP sockets currently in use?
A. netstat -au
B. ifconfig
C. ip addr
D. ss -u
Q.70 How can you check open TCP ports on a Windows machine?
A. netstat -an
B. ipconfig /all
C. ifconfig -a
D. traceroute
Q.71 In TCP, what is the function of the congestion avoidance algorithm?
A. To reduce the data transmission rate before packet loss occurs
B. To encrypt data
C. To compress data
D. To ensure data is sent in order
Q.72 What is TCP’s initial congestion window size typically set to?
A. 1 MSS (Maximum Segment Size)
B. 2 MSS
C. 3 MSS
D. 4 MSS
Q.73 How does UDP handle error checking?
A. It uses sequence numbers and acknowledgments
B. It includes a checksum for error detection
C. It encrypts data packets
D. It compresses data packets
Q.74 Which TCP header field is used for flow control?
A. Sequence Number
B. Acknowledgment Number
C. Window Size
D. Checksum
Q.75 What is the purpose of a TCP three-way handshake?
A. To establish a secure connection
B. To synchronize sequence numbers and acknowledge the connection
C. To compress data
D. To encrypt data
Q.76 In TCP, what mechanism is used to control the rate of data transmission to prevent network congestion?
A. Error correction
B. Flow control
C. Data encryption
D. Data compression
Q.77 How does TCP ensure data is delivered reliably and in the correct order?
A. By using error detection codes
B. By using sequence numbers and acknowledgments
C. By compressing data packets
D. By encrypting data packets
Q.78 Which protocol is typically used for streaming media?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. SCTP
D. RTP
Q.79 What is the main difference between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is connectionless, while UDP is connection-oriented
B. TCP is connection-oriented, while UDP is connectionless
C. TCP is faster than UDP
D. UDP is more secure than TCP
Q.80 How can you resolve a persistent routing loop between two routers?
A. Increasing the hop count limit
B. Implementing hold-down timers
C. Correcting mismatched subnet masks
D. Configuring route filtering
Q.81 A router is not choosing the expected path for traffic, what might be misconfigured?
A. Interface bandwidth settings
B.Routing protocol priorities
C. Next-hop IP addresses
D. All of the above
Q.82 If a newly added network is not appearing in the routing tables, what should be checked first?
A. Physical connections
B. Route summarization settings
C. Access control lists
D. Network advertisements
Q.83 In Cisco IOS, how can you redistribute OSPF routes into EIGRP?
A. By configuring redistribution in the OSPF process
B. By configuring redistribution in the EIGRP process
C. By using access lists
D. By using route maps
Q.84 How can you manually add a static route to the routing table in Linux?
A. Using the route add command
B. Using the ifconfig command
C. Editing the /etc/hosts file
D. Using the ip route add command
Q.85 Which command can display the routing table on a Cisco router?
A. show ip route
B. display ip routing-table
C. route print
D. netstat -r
Q.86 In BGP, what is the purpose of the AS_PATH attribute?
A. To encrypt data packets
B. To specify the priority of routes
C. To record the path of ASes
D. To specify the route source
Q.87 What mechanism does OSPF use to prevent routing loops?
A. Split horizon
B. Route poisoning
C. Link-state advertisement
D. Area designations
Q.88 Which routing protocol is classified as an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)?
A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. RIP
Q.89 What is the primary benefit of using a routing protocol like EIGRP compared to RIP?
A. Faster convergence
B. Higher security
C. Simpler configuration
D. Less bandwidth usage
Q.90 How does a distance-vector routing protocol determine the best route?
A. By counting hops
B. By measuring latency
C. By bandwidth
D. By using a cost metric
Q.91 What is the main advantage of using SDN (Software Defined Networking) in wireless networks?
A. Enhanced security against cyber threats
B. Simplified hardware requirements
C. Flexible network management and configuration
D. Increased data transfer speeds
Q.92 What challenge does the hidden node problem pose in wireless networks?
A. Difficulty in achieving synchronization
B. Increased risk of data interception
C. Interference and collision of data transmissions
D. Excessive energy consumption
Q.93 How do MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) technologies improve wireless network performance?
A. By encrypting data transmissions
B. By increasing the range of frequencies used
C. By using multiple antennas for transmission and reception
D. By compressing the data transmitted
Q.94 Which technology underpins the LTE (Long Term Evolution) standard for mobile communication?
A. GSM
B. CDMA
C. OFDMA
D. TDMA
Q.95 In the context of mobile computing, what is edge computing?
A. Processing data in a central data center
B. Storing data exclusively on the mobile device
C. Processing data near the source of data generation
D. Using cloud storage as the only data storage option
Q.96 What is the primary purpose of the Mobile IP protocol?
A. To secure wireless communications
B. To manage mobile device power consumption
C. To enable devices to move across networks without losing connectivity
D. To compress data for faster transmission
Q.97 Which frequency band is not commonly used by Wi-Fi networks?
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 900 MHz
D. 60 GHz
Q.98 How can network administrators detect and mitigate a man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack?
A. Implementing stronger encryption algorithms
B. Regularly updating firewall rules
C. Using digital certificates and HTTPS
D. Using network monitoring tools
Q.99 If an encrypted email cannot be decrypted by the recipient, what should be checked first?
A. The email client’s compatibility with the encryption standard
B. The correctness of the recipient’s public key
C. The strength of the encryption algorithm
D. The sender’s digital signature
Q.100 What command can be used to encrypt a file using AES-256-CBC with OpenSSL?
A. openssl aes-256-cbc -in plaintext.txt -out encrypted.txt -pass pass:your_password
B. openssl encrypt -aes-256-cbc -in plaintext.txt -out encrypted.txt -k your_password
C. openssl enc -aes-256-cbc -in plaintext.txt -out encrypted.txt -k your_password
D. openssl aes-256-cbc -e -in plaintext.txt -out encrypted.txt -k your_password
Q.101 How can you generate a 2048-bit RSA key pair using OpenSSL?
A. openssl genpkey -algorithm RSA -out private_key.pem 2048
B. openssl rsa -genkey -out private_key.pem 2048
C. openssl genrsa -out private_key.pem 2048
D. openssl rsakey -create -size 2048 -out private_key.pem
Q.102 What role does the Diffie-Hellman algorithm play in cryptography?
A. It provides a method for digital signatures
B. It is used for secure password storage
C. It enables the secure exchange of encryption keys over a public channel
D. It encrypts and decrypts data
Q.103 What is the primary security concern addressed by HTTPS?
A. Data corruption
B. Identity theft
C. Data interception during transmission
D. Unauthorized access to network resources
Q.104 How does a public key infrastructure (PKI) enhance network security?
A. By providing digital certificates that verify the ownership of public keys
B. By encrypting all data on the network
C. By detecting network intrusions
D. By managing network traffic
Q.105 In the context of cryptography, what is a nonce?
A. A unique number used once
B. A method for encrypting data
C. A type of digital signature
D. A protocol for secure communication
Q.106 What differentiates symmetric from asymmetric encryption?
A. The use of one key for encryption and a different key for decryption
B. The speed of encryption and decryption
C. The type of algorithms used
D. The use of a single key for both encryption and decryption
Q.107 What is the function of a digital certificate in network security?
A. To ensure data integrity
B. To verify the identity of entities exchanging information online
C. To compress data
D. To increase data transfer speed
Q.108 Which cryptographic algorithm is commonly used for secure password storage?
A. RSA
B. AES
C. SHA-256
D. DES
Q.109 What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?
A. To detect and remove viruses
B. To manage network traffic based on rules
C. To encrypt data transmissions
D. To authenticate users
Q.110 How can you diagnose slow FTP file transfers?
A. Checking file size and type
B. Analyzing network bandwidth and congestion
C. Verifying FTP server load
D. All of the above
Q.111 A file transfer via FTP fails with a permission error.
What is likely the cause?
A. Incorrect username or password
B. Network congestion
C. File not found on the server
D. Firewall settings
Q.112 If a web page is not loading correctly, what should be checked first?
A. Browser cache
B. Server configuration
C. DNS settings
D. Network connectivity
Q.113 What command allows you to interactively communicate with an HTTP server using telnet?
A. telnet [host] 80 followed by GET / HTTP/1.1
B. telnet [host] 443 followed by CONNECT / HTTP/1.1
C. telnet [host] 80 followed by POST / HTTP/1.1
D. telnet [host] 80 followed by HEAD / HTTP/1.1
Q.114 How can you send a custom HTTP header with a curl request?
A. curl -d “[Header]” [URL]
B. curl -H “[Header]: [Value]” [URL]
C. curl –header “[Header]” [URL]
D. curl –custom-header “[Header]: [Value]” [URL]
Q.115 How can you download a file from an FTP server using the command line in Linux?
A. wget [FTP URL]
B. curl -O [FTP URL]
C. ftp [FTP URL]
D. scp [FTP URL]
Q.116 In FTP, what is the difference between binary and ASCII transfer modes?
A. Binary mode transfers files as text, while ASCII mode transfers them as binary
B. Binary mode compresses data, while ASCII mode does not
C. Binary mode transfers files in a binary format without conversion, while ASCII mode converts files between different text formats
D. Binary mode is more secure than ASCII mode
Q.117 Which feature of HTTP/3 aims to improve performance over lossy or unreliable networks?
A. QUIC protocol
B. WebSocket support
C. Server Push
D. Content-Encoding
Q.118 How does FTP ensure data is transferred securely?
A. By using SSL/TLS for encryption
B. By compressing data
C. By using checksums for integrity
D. By using UDP
Q.119 What mechanism does HTTP/2 use to reduce latency and improve load times compared to HTTP/1.1?
A. Data compression
B. Multiplexing
C. Encryption
D. Tokenization
Q.120 What is the main advantage of using FTP over HTTP for file transfer?
A. Higher security
B. Better compression
C. Support for directory listing and manipulation
D. Faster data transfer
Q.121 What approach is effective in managing the security of a large-scale IoT deployment?
A. Implementing device-level authentication and encryption
B. Using a single, centralized firewall
C. Limiting device functionality
D. Deploying devices without internet access
Q.122 How can latency issues in an SDN environment be identified and addressed?
A. By increasing the bandwidth
B. By updating the SDN controller software
C. By optimizing the control plane communication
D. By adding more access points
Q.123 When troubleshooting connectivity issues in an IoT network, what is a common factor to investigate?
A. The compatibility of IoT protocols
B. The strength of the Wi-Fi signal
C. The firmware version of IoT devices
D. The battery levels of IoT devices
Q.124 Which tool is used for creating a virtualized network function in an NFV infrastructure?
A. OpenStack
B. Netcat
C. OpenFlow
D. Curl
Q.125 What command line tool can be used to simulate IoT devices for testing IoT applications?
A. Wireshark
B. Mosquitto
C. Docker
D. GNS3
Q.126 How can you utilize an API to interact with an SDN controller?
A. By sending HTTP GET requests to the controller’s IP address
B. By using SNMP traps
C. By directly accessing the controller’s database
D. By physical console access
Q.127 Which technology is foundational to the deployment of NFV?
A. 3G cellular networks
B. Cloud computing infrastructure
C. Bluetooth technology
D. RFID technology
Q.128 What challenge does the IoT face regarding data privacy and security?
A. Limited processing power on IoT devices complicates encryption
B. IoT devices do not generate sensitive data
C. IoT devices exclusively use secure, wired connections
D. All IoT communications are automatically encrypted
Q.129 How does SDN enhance network security?
A. By decentralizing network control
B. By physically securing network devices
C. By enabling dynamic, centralized security policy management
D. By requiring additional hardware firewalls
Q.130 In the context of IoT, what is the main function of edge computing?
A. To process data on the cloud exclusively
B. To reduce data processing latency by processing data near its source
C. To store large volumes of data locally
D. To increase data encryption
Q.131 NFV (Network Functions Virtualization) primarily aims to:
A. Replace physical network devices with software versions
B. Increase the use of traditional networking hardware
C. Improve physical network security
D. Enhance wireless signal strength
Q.132 What is the primary goal of SDN (Software-Defined Networking)?
A. To increase the physical infrastructure
B. To centralize network management and control
C. To encrypt network traffic
D. To increase network hardware
Q.133 What approach can be taken to secure SNMP communications in a network prone to eavesdropping?
A. Using SNMPv3 with authentication and encryption
B. Switching to a different network protocol
C. Disabling SNMP on sensitive devices
D. Implementing physical security measures
Q.134 How can network congestion impact SNMP-based network management?
A. It can delay SNMP TRAP delivery
B. It can prevent SNMP SET commands from reaching devices
C. It can cause SNMP query timeouts
D. It can corrupt SNMP messages
Q.135 When an SNMP-managed device is not responding to requests, what is a common first step to troubleshoot?
A. Checking the network connection to the device
B. Verifying the device’s SNMP configuration
C. Testing with a different SNMP manager
D. Reviewing the device’s firewall settings
Q.136 How can you use SNMP to retrieve the system uptime of a remote device?
A. snmpget -v2c -c community host 1.3.6.1.2.1.1.3.0
B. snmpwalk -v2c -c community host 1.3.6.1.2.1.1.3.0
C. snmpquery -v2c -c community host SYSTEM-UPTIME-OID
D. snmpuptime -v2c -c community host
Q.137 What command can be used to initiate an SNMP SET request to change a setting on a remote device?
A. snmpset -v2c -c community host OID value
B. snmpget -v2c -c community host OID set value
C. snmpcmd -set -v2c -c community host OID value
D. snmpconfig -v2c -c community host OID value
Q.138 How can you list all SNMP community strings configured on a Linux system?
A. grep “community” /etc/snmp/snmpd.conf
B. snmpwalk -v2c -c community localhost
C. cat /etc/snmp/snmpd.conf
D. find /etc/snmp/ -type f -exec grep “community” {} \;
Q.139 Which feature distinguishes SNMP INFORM messages from TRAP messages?
A. INFORM messages require acknowledgment, while TRAP messages do not
B. INFORM messages are encrypted, while TRAP messages are not
C. INFORM messages are used for error reporting, while TRAP messages are not
D. INFORM messages can only be sent from manager to agent
Q.140 What mechanism is used in SNMP to set a value on a managed device?
A. SNMP GET
B. SNMP SET
C. SNMP TRAP
D. SNMP INFORM
Q.141 In SNMP, what is the role of the MIB?
A. To store user credentials
B. To encrypt data
C. To define a set of manageable objects
D. To route data
Q.142 How does SNMPv3 improve upon SNMPv1 and SNMPv2?
A. By increasing the number of MIBs
B. By adding more TRAP types
C. By enhancing security features
D. By extending protocol compatibility
Q.143 What type of SNMP message is sent by an agent to notify a manager of an event?
A. GET
B. SET
C. TRAP
D. ACK
Q.144 Which SNMP component is responsible for collecting data from managed devices?
A. SNMP manager
B. SNMP agent
C. SNMP MIB (Management Information Base)
D. SNMP trap
Q. 145 What is SNMP primarily used for in network management?
A. Encrypting network traffic
B. Authenticating network users
C. Monitoring and managing network devices
D. Routing network traffic
Q.146 How can interference from other wireless devices be mitigated in a Wi-Fi network?
A. Changing the network’s operating frequency
B. Decreasing the network’s signal range
C. Encrypting network traffic
D. Increasing the number of access points
Q.147 If a mobile device frequently disconnects from a Wi-Fi network, what should be investigated first?
A. The device’s Wi-Fi adapter settings
B. The strength and stability of the Wi-Fi signal
C. The compatibility of the Wi-Fi network protocol
D. The security settings of the network
Q.148 What command line tool and syntax can be used to analyze Wi-Fi networks and signal strength on a Windows machine?
A. netsh wlan show networks mode=bssid
B. wifiinfo view
C. wlan report
D. scanwifi networks
Q.149 How can you use the iwconfig command in Linux to set the Wi-Fi network’s SSID?
A. iwconfig wlan0 essid [SSID name]
B. iwconfig set wlan0 ssid [SSID name]
C. iwconfig ssid [SSID name] wlan0
D. iwconfig wlan0 connect [SSID name]
Q.150 Which protocol is specifically designed for low-power and low-data-rate wireless communications in IoT networks?
A. Zigbee
B. LTE
C. WiMAX
D. Bluetooth
